[OPE-L:5477] Re: On confusions due to consumption

Tue, 16 Sep 1997 08:50:37 -0700 (PDT)

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I need some time --something that I dont have right now-- to think in
the points you raised in ope-l 5475.

Only a couple of things:

You say:

> The examples given by you and andrew are from agriculture which
> is not really typical of capitalist production since the product
> is both used as a consumer good and as a means of production.

This strikes me because I come from Costa Rica, a country where the
"typical capitalist production" is carried out in agriculture, mainly
in coffee and banana production. I dont think "capitalist production"
can be defined on the basis of the *use-value* produced but on the
social relations prevailing.

In Costarican banana production you have a complete capitalist
organization: wage-labor, science and technology applications, class
struggle, american multinationals, prices are world market prices,
competition, etc. etc.

A second point, linked with this, is: Its not clear to me in your
posts if you maitain that *value* is determined by *use-value*
magnitudes (like "net product") or by social labor-time spent. Do you
think that this is Marx's theory? Why? Would the determination of
value by labor-time be an "absolute" principle in Marx's theory or has
it "exceptions"?

This is a pure theoretical point which I think is previous to the
discussions on the interesting historical cases you consider. May I
know your position on this?

Alejandro R.