[OPE] value and measuring labor time

From: Jurriaan Bendien <adsl675281@telfort.nl>
Date: Fri May 15 2009 - 16:30:20 EDT

Howard wrote:

"Surplus labor is disposable time".

What evidence is there for this idea? At least in Marx's theory, I think this is not true. At the simplest level, the surplus labor is required to sustain:

(1) the consumption needs of the propertied classes who do not work,
(2) the reinvestment of capital,
(3) requirements necessitated by population growth, the security and safety of persons and property, and the formation of reserves.

Unfortunately few authors have proved able to genuinely theorise the categories of surplus value, surplus product, surplus labor and so on, because these categories were accepted as self-evident.


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