Re: [OPE] value-form theory redux

From: Philip Dunn <>
Date: Sat Mar 14 2009 - 09:34:05 EDT

On Sat, 2009-03-14 at 14:01 +0100, Dave Zachariah wrote:

> Good, we are getting to the core of the issue. First, let me clarify my
> statement (1), since it seems like Philip misread it. I claim that
> 'economic value' is a property that use-values *acquire* in societies.

Let me clarify also. I did not misread. Use-values can never acquire the
property of value. They can become the material bearers of commodities.
The idea is that use-values and commodities are different entities.

Marx's formula that a commodity is a use-value and a value is poor. How
can one thing be two things?

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Received on Sat Mar 14 09:38:29 2009

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