Re: [OPE] Reply to Geert Reuten

From: Philip Dunn <>
Date: Mon Mar 09 2009 - 03:12:10 EDT

On Mon, 2009-03-09 at 06:16 +0100, Jurriaan Bendien wrote:
> Nevertheless, the capitalist and precapitalist definition of these
> concepts are not unrelated, and Marx explains very clearly what the
> link is, in his 1859 Critique of Political Economy:
> "This abstraction, human labour in general, exists in the form of
> average labour which, IN A GIVEN SOCIETY, the average person can
> perform, productive expenditure of a certain amount of human muscles,
> nerves, brain, etc. It is simple labour [English economists call it
> "unskilled labour"] which any average individual can be trained to do
> and which in one way or another he has to perform. The characteristics
> of this average labour are different in different countries and
> different historical epochs, but IN ANY PARTICULAR SOCIETY it appears
> as something given." (my stress).

How can physiologically equal labour create that purely social thing, value?
How is that possible?

If I load up the dishwasher at home why do I not create value?
I would do if I did the same thing while working in a restaurant?

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Received on Mon Mar 9 03:13:56 2009

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