From: Allin Cottrell (cottrell@WFU.EDU)
Date: Sat Mar 31 2007 - 20:07:40 EDT
On Sat, 31 Mar 2007, Rakesh Bhandari wrote: > Fred wrote: > > "Furthermore, Marx emphasis in these pages is that prices of > production change IF AND ONLY IF the values of commodities > change, either in final goods industries, or in industries that > produce means of production. You seem to have in mind a > situation in which prices of production change from period to > period, because input prices are not equal to output prices, > even though the values of commodities remain the same." > > Well when does value change if not between the production and > realization of the inputs and the production and realization of > the outputs? This is question Guisanni has put forth. I put it > to Allin. What is the answer? I suspect (though I do not know) that Fred would agree with the following answer. At any rate it's mine, and I take it to be Marx's: The value of a commodity changes when and only when there is an alteration in the labour time that is socially necessary for its production. If technology is changing _continuously_ this could indeed occur "between the production of the inputs and the production of the outputs", but (to reiterate what I said in an earlier post) it is a very big stretch to attribute this sort of dynamic analysis to Marx. Allin.
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.5 : Mon Apr 02 2007 - 00:00:09 EDT