From: Ian Wright (wrighti@ACM.ORG)
Date: Thu Feb 22 2007 - 12:13:19 EST
Hi Diego Thanks for your answer. I have some more questions because I do not yet understand. In your approach, is it possible to have input prices = output prices as a special case? If so, what is your formula for labour values in the case of simple commodity production? And if profits happen to be equalized, and market prices equal prices of production, what is your formula for labour values in this case too? Thanks, -Ian.
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