Re: [OPE-L] SV: [OPE-L] what is irrational in the functioning of capitalism?

From: Ian Wright (wrighti@ACM.ORG)
Date: Thu Nov 30 2006 - 22:48:30 EST

Hi Ajit

OK let's cut to the chase as you suggest.

Marx's theory of value implies the proposition that there is no profit
without surplus labour. It's logically possible that there is profit
without surplus labour. Hence Marx's theory of value is wrong.

My theory of horses implies the proposition that they don't talk. It's
logically possible that horses can talk. Therefore my theory of horses
is wrong.

This is not much of a critique is it?

There's a reason why horses don't talk, and there's a reason we don't
find profits without surplus-labour. My talk of dynamic trajectories
and the intertwined historical emergence of universal labour and the
value-form, which you're not interested in, is an attempt to explain
why your logical possibility cannot be an actual possibility.

You raise other issues that I'd like to comment on (unfeasibly large
rates of surplus-value and robot labour), but I'll follow your example
and stick to one issue at a time.


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