From: Ian Wright (wrighti@ACM.ORG)
Date: Tue Jun 06 2006 - 00:09:46 EDT
Hi Allin > "Where is the labour-time that was expended in previous rounds > on the production of capitalist consumption goods in Sraffian > labour-value accounting?" > > It's in the labour-value of those consumption goods. Not in Sraffian labour-value accounting. This is a key point. The Sraffian labour value of any bundle of commodities, be it consumed by capitalists or not, does not count the indirect labour that went into the production of the capitalist consumption goods of previous rounds. > "Is this labour being counted or not?" > > It's being counted in the value of the capitalist consumption > goods themselves. It's not being counted in the value of the > commodities produced "by means of" those consumption goods, > because there are no such commodities. I understand the point you wish to make. But you cannot have your cake and eat it. If the indirect labour expended on capitalist consumption goods "is not being counted in the value of commodities" then it cannot be "counted in the value of the capitalist consumption goods themselves". Before tackling whether commodities are produced "by means of" the capitalist consumption goods we both need to get clear what the Sraffian definition of labour-value is counting and what it is not counting. Only once we understand this can we then think about what should and should not be counted. Do you agree that actual labour expended on the production of capitalist consumption goods in previous rounds is not counted in the Sraffian formula for labour-values? Best wishes, -Ian.
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