Re: indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value

From: Rakesh Bhandari (rakeshb@STANFORD.EDU)
Date: Mon Nov 17 2003 - 12:07:44 EST

>So, for you there is no capital at a given point of
>time for Marx? When Marx writes C, V etc in his
>equations they are not capital?

As you know, I accept Carchedi's temporalist point that all
variables should be time subscripted. So if C and V are capital
at one point in time, SV and total value/price produced are forms
of capital at a later point of time. Even in simple
reproduction there are temporal lags; everything does not happen
at once. Hence, things can go wrong even in simple reproduction

>No! my point is not about what science should be at
>all. Science believs in cause-effect relationship.
>This is their fundamental belief. Scientists
>understand what they mean when they refer to cause as
>they have devised certain standards that justifies
>something to be a cause or not (statistical
>probability or passing the laboratory test or what
>ever)but those standards themselves have no grounds
>independent of the context of the scientific

Well put indeed. Then the question what is the meaning of
cause in the Sraffian theory?

>As religious or spiritual people understand
>what they mean when they talk about soul and God. But
>neither can be established through mathematical proofs
>or logical propositions.
>This whole debate has nothing to do with Michael L. It
>started off because you had raised the question of no
>causality in Sraffa's work. As far as the later
>Wittgenstein is concerned, I think he will accept that
>cause and effect has meaning within the context of
>scientific discourse but it will become nonsense once
>you drag it out of the scientific context and use it
>in philosophical ar mathematical discourse. Cheers,
>ajit sinha

So given that it has no room for causality Sraffa's theory is a
sub species of philosophical and mathematical

Still not quite getting the point, Rakesh

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