On Thu, 26 Oct 2000 email@example.com wrote: > Allin wrote in [OPE-L:4281]: > > > <snip, JL>; on the other hand, I don't > > believe that _any_ real capitalist economies over any historical > > period have closely approximated an equalized rate of profit. > > This is a very strong empirical/historical claim, imo. Do > you have the data "for _any_ (and all?, JL) real capitalist > economies over any (and all "modern"?, JL) historical > period"(s)? If not, how do you support the above claim? I don't mean that I have very extensive data. But the data we do have show fairly wide and stable dispersion of profit rates. There are also strong a priori grounds for such a claim: Given the randomness inherent in the "anarchy of the market" it's very improbable that the distribution of profit rates should be almost degenerate. Allin.
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