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> Does this not vitiate the whole premise of the formation of a uniform rate
> of profit?
Yes and no. Yes, if you are thinking in terms of a static equilibrium. No,
if you are thinking of a tendency.
> Is the idea of a transformation from values to prices of production still
> if the valuation of fixed capital is indeterminate?
You are correct. The transformation problem [in the form of an algebraic
solution] does not make sense.
-- Michael Perelman Economics Department California State University Chico, CA 95929
Tel. 530-898-5321 E-Mail email@example.com
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