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thanks for your illuminating post #2723.
I have a couple of questions:
a) What would be the difference between the Hegelian and the Aristotelian
form of the syllogism?
b) Can we think of the Hegelian form of syllogism as a *historical*, *real
time* process, pressumably in contrast with the Aristotelian one, which
would be a *purely logical*, *atemporal* scheme?
I think Marx conceives the C-M-C and the M-C-M' as real time, historical
processes which cannot be collapsed into an "instantaneous", "logical" moment.
Thanks in advance!
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