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Let me say this way.
Slave labor can create a value only when its products are included in the same kind of commodities as those that are produced by non-slavery human labor. As physical or material objects of commodities, there can be no matter whether the commodities are produced by slaves or by gods, whether by blacks or by whites.
But if such commodities are not produced by non-slavery labor, the products are earmarked as slave products and that are valued at cheap prices. The slave labors are not treated as human labors. They cannot create any surplus value even though their surplus labors and their surplus products are consumed by the society. Still, if the productas are exported abroad and compete with other products of human labor of the same kind, then they can be treated as value-producing.
Is this OK?
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