[OPE-L:1963] Re: Re: value-form theories

michael a. lebowitz (mlebowit@sfu.ca)
Mon, 20 Dec 1999 00:36:22 -0800

At 09:13 AM 12/20/1999 +1100, steve wrote:
>Chris comments that
>"Marx's separation of V from EV ocurred very late. There is no trace of it
>in 1859".
>In fact, it can be seen in 1857, in the footnote in the Grundrisse where
>Marx first started to employ value, use-value and exchange-value in a
>dialectical triage:
>"Is not value to be conceived as the unity of use value and exchange value?
>In and for itself, is value as such the general form, in opposition to use
>value and exchange value as particular forms of it?" (footnote pp. 266-267
>Penguin Grundrisse)

        Interesting. From this quote it sounds a bit like Proudhon's "constituted
value" of a commodity which Marx describes in PoP as "purely and simply the
value which is constituted by the labour time incorporated in it" (CW,vol.
6,120) and goes on in his trashing of Proudhon relative to the "scientific"
Ricardo to state:

"The determination of value by labour time is, for Ricardo, the law of
exchange value; for M. Proudhon, it is the synthesis of use value and
exchange value." (124)

        Aside from this apparent similarity, I don't see any link; Marx goes on in
that footnote to talk about the significance of use values whereas Proudhon
(like so many others at the time... and after) tends to see use value as a

        in solidarity,

Michael A. Lebowitz
Economics Department
Simon Fraser University
Burnaby, B.C., Canada V5A 1S6
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