[OPE-L:1565] Re: Re: Re: Lapides and Marx's wage theory

Jurriaan Bendien (djjb99@worldonline.nl)
Sun, 24 Oct 1999 01:27:04 +0100

...and an additional comment on methodology:

Jerry writes:

The commodity-form requires that a commodity have a use-value, an
exchange-value, and value. The value-form then requires the introduction
of the category of money. Yet the category of money necessarily implies
the state-form since money is issued by nation-states.

Commodities and money as forms existed as forms long before the bourgeois
state, and indeed existed before "nation-states" as such. There is imo no
NECESSARY or LOGICAL "dialectical connection" between commodities and money
on the one hand, and the (bourgeois) state on the other, for that reason
alone. And if we go back in history, we actually find agencies (such as
merchant houses) issuing coins and promissory notes without any state

In solidarity


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