[OPE-L:5258] Re: trpf/extra profits vs. extra surplus value?

andrew kliman (Andrew_Kliman@msn.com)
Fri, 13 Jun 1997 20:01:55 -0700 (PDT)

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In response to Paolo Cipola's ope-l 5257:

Of course, there's production of extra *surplus*-value. But it doesn't come
from the production of more *value.* Rather, it comes from the fact that the
worker in the more productive firm needs to work less to reproduce an
equivalent of the wage, but the working-day is not correspondingly reduced.
This is exactly what Marx says in the passage you quote:

"Nevertheless... the increased production of surplus value arises from the
curtailment of the necessary labor time, and from the corresponding
prolongation of the surplus labor".

Keep in mind that this is a chapter on the concept on the production of
*relative* surplus-value, more surplus-value without more value. Also that
the term "production" in "production of relative surplus-value" means only
that the curtailment of necessary labor-time "produces" the effect that a
greater share of the workday is surplus-time.

Andrew Kliman