[OPE-L:4790] RE: K-M's concept of "revenue"

andrew kliman (Andrew_Kliman@msn.com)
Tue, 15 Apr 1997 06:02:42 -0700 (PDT)

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A reply to Fred's ope-l 4762.

I think it may help advance the discussion of the revenue issue if, instead of
mischaracterizing what I write ("Andrew wants to deny that revenue is a part
of surplus-value "; "what is your textual evidence to support your
interpretation that Marx's concept of revenue is NOT a part of
surplus-value?"), you answered the questions I have asked twice already and
will now repeat for a third time:

"Assume that total price equals $70; $20 of this is surplus-value. Capitalists
then advance $49 for means of production and labor-power. Assume anything you
wish concerning physical output/input relations.

"What happens to the difference between the proceeds and the advances? What
would you call this difference? What did Marx call it? If he didn't have a
name for it, do you think that means he denied its existence? If not, is it
not appropriate to give it a name?"

Still awaiting Fred's answer,

Andrew Kliman (AX)