[OPE-L:4454] RE: K-M's concept of "revenue"

andrew klima (Andrew_Kliman@msn.com)
Thu, 20 Mar 1997 07:18:55 -0800 (PST)

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A response to Fred's ope-l 4452.

Without getting into a detailed textual thing at the moment, I'll just ask the
following. Assume that total price equals $70; $20 of this is surplus-value.
Capitalists then advance $49 for means of production and labor-power. Assume
anything you wish concerning physical output/input relations.

What happens to the difference between the proceeds and the advances? What
would you call this difference? What did Marx call it? If he didn't have a
name for it, do you think that means he denied its existence? If not, is it
not appropriate to give it a name? If we were to go back relabel it "Diff,"
would that alter the relations of reproduction when prices are not stationary?
I.e., what else in our illustration of the transformation together with the
so-called "transformation" of input prices would be affected? If nothing,
aren't we just arguing about a label rather than a concept?

Andrew Kliman