[OPE-L:4283] Re: Mandel vs. Baran-Sweezy

aramos@aramos.b (aramos@aramos.bo)
Wed, 5 Mar 1997 06:36:37 -0800 (PST)

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In ope-l 4267 Alejandro Valle-Baeza wrote:

> The critic of Mandel to this is simple and (I think) correct:
> S(t+1)/S(t)=L(t+1)/L(t) s(t+1)/s(t)
> where S(t) is surplus value in time t
> L(t) is labor force in time t
> s(t) rate of surplus value in t, defined by: S(t)/L(t)

Alejandro Ramos:

Thanks to Alejandro Valle for his reply. I ask:

1. L(t) seems *variable capital*, not total living labor-force, as
suggested by the notation "L". Is it true? Strictly speaking, if these
magnitudes are measured in labor-time L(t) would be *necessary
labor* instead of *variable capital*.

2. I would write: S(t+1)/S(t)=[L(t+1)/L(t)]*[s(t+1)/s(t)]
Is this right?

3. Is this equation in Mandel's articles. Are these magnitudes
measured in labor-time? What does Mandel say about money-magnitudes?

Alejandro Ramos M.