[OPE-L:1879] Re:

Paul Cockshott (wpc@clyder.gn.apc.org)
Mon, 22 Apr 1996 15:26:32 -0700

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4. Chai-on replies,

None of the percentages would be relevant to our question. If the =
usurers appropriation of the surplus that were originally in the hands =
of the feudal lords began to outweigh the possibility of redemption. =
(the usurers appropriation began to accelerate irreversibly), we could =
say it became dominant. =20

Paul C
For this to be true, the net interest falling due each year
would have to eat up the majority of the surplus value, under
those circumstances, I would agree that usurers capital would
be dominant. Perhaps since we are talking of feudalism instead
of surplus value one should just refer to surplus labour, though
to make it comensurable with interest one has to express it as