[OPE-L:1863] Re:

Chai-on Lee (conlee@chonnam.chonnam.ac.kr)
Mon, 22 Apr 1996 08:00:45 -0700

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I, Paul Cockshott said on Friday, April 19, in[OPE-L:1824]said,

Usurers capital under feudalism would, on your definition above, be =
dominant. =20

2. Chai-on replied

Yes, it would if the surplus appropriated by the feudal lords were =
by the usurers, if the feudal tributes were transferred to the hands of =
usurers. It was one of the reasons the feudal mode of production was to =
in the wane. With the collapse of the feudal mode, however, the usuery =
also to collapse because the latter relied upon the former. =20

3. Paul asks again:

What percentage of the surplus do usurers need to appropriate to be =
as the dominant class, 1%, 5%, 50%?
Paul Cockshott

4. Chai-on replies,

None of the percentages would be relevant to our question. If the =
usurers appropriation of the surplus that were originally in the hands =
of the feudal lords began to outweigh the possibility of redemption. =
(the usurers appropriation began to accelerate irreversibly), we could =
say it became dominant. =20

With regards,

Chai-on: conlee@chonnam.chonnam.ac.kr