[OPE-L:1859] Re:

Paul Cockshott (wpc@cs.strath.ac.uk)
Mon, 22 Apr 1996 07:26:46 -0700

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I, Paul Cockshott said on Friday, April 19, in[OPE-L:1824]said,

Usurers capital under feudalism would, on your definition above, be dominant.

Chai-on replied

Yes, it would if the surplus appropriated by the feudal lords were absorbed
by the usurers, if the feudal tributes were transferred to the hands of the
usurers. It was one of the reasons the feudal mode of production was to be
in the wane. With the collapse of the feudal mode, however, the usuery was
also to collapse because the latter relied upon the former.

Paul now asks:

What percentage of the surplus do usurers need to appropriate to be defined
as the dominant class, 1%, 5%, 50%?
Paul Cockshott