[OPE-L:1729] Petty Commodity Production

=?EUC-KR?B?sOa/tbTrx9AgsbO89sD8u+q9xw==? (conlee@chonnam.chonnam.ac.kr)
Tue, 9 Apr 1996 03:42:24 -0700

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=B9=DE=B4=C2=C0=CC: 'ope-l@anthrax.ecst.csuchico.edu'
=C1=A6=B8=F1: RE: [OPE-L:1718] Re: =20

Chai-on said:
No. PCP cannot be a dominating mode of production in a social formation
because commodity exchange is to be ruled by a certain social process=20
determines the reduction coefficient of heterogeneous to homogeneous=20
A dominating mode of production determines the frame of reference for =
reduction of skilled, complex labors to unskilled, simple ones.
Paul replied:
It all depends what you mean by dominant. Your definition seems
too specific to commodity production. In discussing the transintion
from slavery to feudalism under the colonate would your definition=20
apply? I think not.
By dominant I meant simply that it employed the greater
part of the social labour.

Chai-on rereplies:
The terminology of "Dominant" should not follow ** the demographic =
majority rule.** The point is the relationship between distinct modes =
of production. PCP cannot rule other modes of production on account of =
its own weak point. The weak point is this: commodity production =
requires a reduction principle of skilled, complex labors to unskilled, =
simple ones. The reduction principle, according to Marx, is determined =
by a social process. IMO, the social process is the frame of reference =
derived from other mode of production, not from pcp's own mode of =
production. It is to be imposed from without. =20

One more point towards Paul's position;

I should reject such a demographic majority rule. The commanders are of =
course of the minority but they rule dominantly the majority. The =
qualitative relationship between different modes of production is to be =
investigated. Today, electoronic industry is dominant but is still =
employing relatively small portion of the existent labor-powers. =20


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