[OPE-L:1718] Re:

Paul Cockshott (wpc@clyder.gn.apc.org)
Mon, 8 Apr 1996 11:23:21 -0700

[ show plain text ]

No. PCP cannot be a dominating mode of production in a social formation
because commodity exchange is to be ruled by a certain social process
determines the reduction coefficient of heterogeneous to homogeneous
A dominating mode of production determines the frame of reference for the
reduction of skilled, complex labors to unskilled, simple ones.

It all depends what you mean by dominant. Your definition seems
too specific to commodity production. In discussing the transintion
from slavery to feudalism under the colonate would your definition
apply? I think not.
By dominant I meant simply that it employed the greater
part of the social labour.