A propos a recent posting of Alan's:
> In all existing proofs of inconsistency, our contention is that
> Marx's definitions have been replaced by other defintions. For
> example, value has been defined by the equation
>
> v=vA+L
>
> But this definition applies only to the special case of both
> sale and purchase at values.
I'm now re-confused on something I thought we had agreed. The
_definition_ of value via the equation given above (whether or not it
represents what Marx meant) is surely independent of the issue of whether
sale and purchase take place at prices corresponding to values.
Schematically, step 1 is to formulate an adequate definition of value,
step 2 is to see whether exchanges take place at prices corresponding to
values so defined (on average or whatever).
Allin.