Re: [OPE] Brecht and value-form theory

From: Dave Zachariah <>
Date: Thu Mar 19 2009 - 07:14:48 EDT

2009/3/17 Ian Wright <>

> I prefer the distinction between labor-embodied and labor-commanded.

I agree with this if one, contrary to Jerry's description, takes the former
to mean precisely the amount of social labour necessary, i.e. the 'necesary'
labour-content rather than the 'raw' labour-content.

There is, however, some terminological confusion about labour-commanded from
Smith: Whether it means the amount of labour one can command by purchasing
labour-power or the amount of social labour-content that one commands with a
given amount of money.

In effect the VFT argument ultimately seems to disolve this distinction
between labour-content and price. In a 'single-system' you can't speak of a
deviation between labour-content and price.

Moreover, VFT has on definitional grounds simply ruled out the notion of
labour-content outside the context of commodity production and exchange. I
think this lacks any valid justification.

//Dave Z

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Received on Thu Mar 19 07:17:15 2009

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