Re: [OPE-L] The lump of surplus value fallacy and the Moseley paradox

From: Dave Zachariah (davez@KTH.SE)
Date: Sun Jan 13 2008 - 16:30:34 EST

on 2008-01-13 22:03 Philip Dunn wrote:
> Ah, but that is the question -- does it make no difference? If a
> capitalist hires Menials'R'Us to provide home comforts, some would say
> that the workers employed by said firm are productive. Again, how can
> you tell?

If we have agreed to draw the distinction between activities that rely
entirely on surplus labour performed in other sectors, then it is a
matter of empirical, or at least logical, analysis.

It will show that nothing has changed: the domestic servants are still
supported by the income that the capitalist has appropriated from other
sectors. Whether or not he pays the servants directly or through a
middle-man does not alter this fact.

//Dave Z

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