From: Ian Wright (wrighti@ACM.ORG)
Date: Wed Aug 15 2007 - 12:27:32 EDT
> But Ian, it is well known (at least since Adam Smith) > that when the rate of profits is equal to zero, i.e., > when all the income goes to labor then prices of > production are identical with labor values. This is > what you get when you put rate of profits equal to > zero in the dated labor equation. Cheers, ajit sinha Do you know when the standard *formula* for labour-values was first presented in the economic literature?
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