Re: [OPE-L] questions on the interpretation of labour values

From: Paul Cockshott (wpc@DCS.GLA.AC.UK)
Date: Thu Mar 01 2007 - 17:18:43 EST

> Are prices are necessary for the existence of labour values? (E.g, are
> prices are part of the "real definition" of labour values?).

Hi Ian:

Yes, prices are a  necessary mode of expression of value. Prices
are part of the "real definition" of commodities.
No to Ians question. Jerrys is a non-sequitur, Prices are 'a' in the sense
of one possible, of the necessary modes of expression of value. Another possible mode would
be explicit marking of products with their labour contents in a planned economy.
Prices may be part of the real definition of commodities - but only post the 
development of money, in a barter system price as generalised exchange value
does not exist. Further there is in Jerry the implicit assumption that
value only exists where commodities exist. This is to confuse value with
a mode of its representation - exchange value.

> In a
> hypothetical planned economy without prices are there labour values?

Why not?

> Are prices the only way to measure labour values?

Prices are the way in which values come to be expressed. 

In contemporary society

are more than merely a "measure" of value. (btw, why do you refer
to "labour values"?  This seems to me to be redundant and akin to
referring consistently to the "productivity of labor" rather than simply

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