[OPE-L] Unequal Exchange "without recourse to the notion of 'value'"?

From: Jurriaan Bendien (adsl675281@TISCALI.NL)
Date: Wed Jan 17 2007 - 10:07:12 EST


I understand your point, but it's still unclear to me how, if you assume a
marginalist concept of value (as an expression of intensity of subjective
preference for a good or service), an economic exchange could be said to be
a trade of unequal values at all - wouldn't it simply be a difference in
subjective perceptions?


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