Re: [OPE-L] SV: [OPE-L] what is irrational in the functioning of capitalism?

From: ajit sinha (sinha_a99@YAHOO.COM)
Date: Tue Nov 28 2006 - 10:20:20 EST

--- Dogan Goecmen <Dogangoecmen@AOL.COM> wrote:
> Actually, I do not understand why  "labor" is
> particularly important in the context of production
> of
> profit. Do we think that "surplus" cannot be
> produced
> without labor?  But why can't we imagine a system of
> production completely operated by  robots? In this
> case, why can't we imagine the system producing  a
> "surplus" and a market with prices of commodities
> with
> a rate of  profits to boot. The question is, can we
> make a logical claim that a system  of production
> without labor will not be able to produce "surplus".
> If  not, then there is a serious problem with Marx's
> concept of "surplus  value". Cheers, ajit sinha
> Ajit, surplus value theory is not unique to Marx.
> Rather it is one of the
> most central categories of political economy. If it
> was possible to produce
> value without labourers capitalists would have not
> employed workers at all. Your
> rhetorical question implies that production can take
> place without human
> beings.  If this is what you mean, this a science
> fiction. Regards, Dogan
Dogan, Thank you for letting me know that "surplus
value is one of the central categories of political
economy". I would have simply ignored your patronising
comment if it was true. But I'm sorry to inform you
that you are wrong and you need to go back to your
basics of political economy. The notion of surplus
value is unique to Marx.

I don't know if my English is so complicated that you
cannot understand anything I have written. Where did I
write capitalists can produce without labor now? And
where did you get the idea that my question is a
rhetorical one? It is a question of logical
possibility. If a science fiction is logically
possible, then that is a good logical challange to any
theory that contradicts it. Cheers, ajit sinha

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