Re: [OPE-L] workers' consumption and capitalists' consumption

From: Ian Wright (wrighti@ACM.ORG)
Date: Mon Jun 12 2006 - 11:12:16 EDT

Hi Ajit

> Ian, I don't think it was a silly point. I also don't
> think your last message allays my fears. I would
> rather stick to clarifying this point first, because
> this might bring the basic problem, which I think is a
> logical problem, with your approach to light. My point
> is that output cannot become its own input. The two
> tons of corn as input was not used out of the ten tons
> of corn, it existed before the ten tons of corn was
> produced.

Indeed. That is why I thought your "speed of light" complaint didn't
make sense. 4 tons of the output on the RHS is not identically the 4
tons of capitalist consumption on the LHS. Just as  2 tons of the
output on the RHS is not identically the 2 tons of raw materials on
the LHS.

> Are you now saying that you knew that
> capitalists consumed 4 tons of corn out of the output
> of (t-1) period of production, and this is what you
> are replacing from the current ten tons of corn
> output? If this is your position, then please confirm.

Yes, but I am not "now saying" it. I have always said it. Both
capitalist consumption and worker consumption is specified, i.e. the
surplus is fully distributed both in nominal and physical terms. This
is a state of self-replacing equilibrium, not a non-equilibrium state.

Best wishes,

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