Re: [OPE-L] workers' consumption and capitalists' consumption

From: Philip Dunn (hyl0morph@YAHOO.CO.UK)
Date: Sat Jun 03 2006 - 13:00:10 EDT

So the value of workers' consumption does not transfer to the commodity
produced by the capitalist?

On Sat, 2006-06-03 at 12:14 -0400, glevy@PRATT.EDU wrote:
> > So the value of workers' and capitalists' consumption does not transfer
> > to the commodity produced?
> Hi Phil,
> The value of the goods consumed by the working class is, in a sense,
> "transferred" to the value of labour power. The "commodity produced" is
> labour-power. Consider the simple case of food.  Without food, the value
> of labour power is diminished to the point where it is nil (where workers
> are unable to labor because of a lack of energy).  In that sense, the
> value of consumption goods is required to "maintain" (reproduce) the value
> of the commodity labour-power because without that value then the
> use-value of labour would diminish.
> In solidarity, Jerry

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