Re: [OPE-L] workers' consumption and capitalists' consumption

From: Philip Dunn (hyl0morph@YAHOO.CO.UK)
Date: Fri Jun 02 2006 - 20:14:47 EDT

Hi Jerry

So the value of workers' and capitalists' consumption does not transfer
to the commodity produced?

On Fri, 2006-06-02 at 08:38 -0400, glevy@PRATT.EDU wrote:
> > I would take the view that consumption by capitalists
> > or workers is destructive of value. The value of what
> > they consume does not get back into the process of
> > value production.
> Hi Phil,
> (I'll answer without reference to Sraffa.)
> The consumption of  the value of commodities by
> workers does go back into the process of value production
> because it forms a necessary moment in the reproduction
> of labour-power and, hence, value reproduction.  You
> see it as "destructive of value" but this is, imo, one-sided:
> it is true that consumption  is destructive of value to the
> extent that the value and use-value of commodities are
> exhausted/destroyed, but that same consumption
> _reproduces_ value to the extend that it allows for the
> reproduction of the commodity labour-power and hence
> forms a pre-condition  for continued value production.
> This contrasts, in a sense, to capitalist consumption.  On
> the one hand,  the individual consumption of surplus-value
> by capitalists diminishes the rate of the productive consumption
> of surplus-value and hence the accumulation of  capital. But, on
> the other hand, capitalist consumption is required for the
> reproduction of the capitalist _class_ and in that sense forms
> a necessary requirement for _capitalist_ production.
> In solidarity, Jerry

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