Re: [OPE-L] PUPL and the total profit/total surplus value identity

Date: Tue May 16 2006 - 23:18:23 EDT

----- Original Message -----
From: 이채언
Sent: Tuesday, May 16, 2006 10:55 PM
Subject: [RE]Re: [OPE-L] PUPL and the total profit/total surplus value

Marx argues that the workers give free credit to the capitalist!

If a capitalist starts his business with borrowed money, does he advance
nothing at all?


  --------------------------------------- [ Original Message ]
  Sender : Jerry Levy < Gerald_A_Levy@MSN.COM >
  Date : 2006-05-17 05:23:43
  S u b j e c t : Re: [OPE-L] PUPL and the total profit/total surplus
value identity

  > You suggest: There is support in Marx for the idea that these
[salaries of
  > non-productive labor] are advanced, I think. After all, if the wages for
  > productive workers are advanced (i.e. V is advanced) then why not also
  > the wages of unproductive workers?
  > My reply is that Marx's basic principle is that the wages are mainly
  > "advanced", i.e. the worker contracts to work first, and gets paid later.


  V and C are *advanced* in Marx's theory to the extent that --within
  period analysis -- money to purchase means of production and
  labour power is assumed to be spent before production in the new
  period can commence.

  I.e. in the formula

  M - C {MP, LP} ... (P) .... C' - M'

  M - C happens before P.

  Of course, Marx was aware that the wages of workers are not, _in practice_,
  (generally) advanced. In claiming that money capital for V is advanced I
  think he was making a simplifying assumption.

  I'm still thinking about the rest of your post.

  In solidarity, Jerry

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