Date: Mon Apr 04 2005 - 14:26:57 EDT
> The norm would be for > wages to represent a roughly stable share of GNP and for > accumulation to increase the stock of constant capital. Paul C, What are some empirical estimates of the monetary value of the stock of c as a percentage of GNP (or GDP)? Is the long-term empirical trend for this percentage to remain stable, decrease, or increase? (Note that I am not asking for a theoretical claim one way or another -- just empirical estimates in as many countries and time periods that list members are aware of.) In solidarity, Jerry PS: where we have both GNP and GDP data, which one should Marxians use? Why?
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