Re: (OPE-L) Re: tendencies for equalization

From: Ian Wright (iwright@GMAIL.COM)
Date: Fri Oct 01 2004 - 13:03:25 EDT

Hi Jerry and others,

What do you think is the reason why 90-95% of the income distribution
can be characterised by an exponential distribution, and why is the
distribution invariant over decades?

Do you think that a unimodal income distribution is an empirical
indication of a tendency to equalisation?


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