Re: (OPE-L) [Jurriaan on] Unproductive consumption

From: Francisco Paulo Cipolla (cipolla@UFPR.BR)
Date: Fri Apr 30 2004 - 16:16:29 EDT

But should we not consider that these countries have different values of labor
power? The fact that americans earn more than chinese does not prove that wages
in America are higher than the value of labor power!

Paul Cockshott wrote:

> On Thursday 29 Apr 2004 22:13, Francisco Paulo Cipolla wrote:
> >
> > "and thus the taxation system
> > becomes a lever to transfer net income from the
> > working class to the capitalist class through incentives,
> > subsidies, concessions and privatisation of public property."
> >
> > Does this mean that wages were generally above the value of labor power so
> > that state taxes scoop off the excess and redistributes them in favor of
> > the capitalist class? Or is it that in the end this redistribution ends up
> > diminishing wages below the value of the labor power?
> The wages of workers in Europe and the US are above the
> value of labour power if this is taken to be the reproduction
> cost of labour. This is born out by the fact that labour can
> be reproduced much more cheaply in India or China.
> It is only a commitment to the working class interest that
> inhibits Marxists from admiting this.

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