Re: (OPE-L) Re: the real wage, and the production of surplus value

From: Paul Cockshott (clyder@GN.APC.ORG)
Date: Mon Dec 08 2003 - 16:08:51 EST

It tends to be of the order of 50%, why not 1% or 99%.

If we dont have a general theory that can explain a basic
and consistent feature of capitalism we are not doing well.
We could relegate this to conjunctural factors, but that
would be a copout like explaining the existence of profit
by 'conjunctural factors'.

glevy@PRATT.EDU wrote:
> Paul C wrote:
> > [...]I do think we
> > need an explanation of the relatively stable
> > wage share in national incomes. [...]
> Is that explanation, though, to be found through 'basic
> theory' or through conjunctural and class analysis?
> As an empirical and historical matter, how 'stable' is
> that share -- and over what time period -- when
> put in the context of the international capitalist
> economy rather than individual capitalist social formations?
> In solidarity, Jerry

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