Re: (OPE-L) measuring exploitation

From: Philip Dunn (pscumnud@DIRCON.CO.UK)
Date: Thu Oct 02 2003 - 08:35:45 EDT

Hi Jerry

This is an easy one.  Since wages for Lb are 100% lower than those received by
La, Lb get zero wages and are infinitely exploited.

Yours pedantically


Quoting gerald_a_levy <gerald_a_levy@MSN.COM>:

> A hypothetical question:
> a)  Suppose there are two firms in the same
> branch of production but these two firms are in different
> regions (or countries).
> b) Suppose that the workers in those 2 firms work the same
> working hours,  work to the same degree of labor intensity,
> have the same skills,  and that the total quantity of output
> produced in each firm is the same.  Assume that there is a
> uniform price for a unit of output.
> c)  In the first firm (A)  there are less workers (La) because
> output/worker/hr. is greater  but  La receive higher wages.
> In the second firm (B) there are more workers (Lb>La) and
> the output/worker/hr is lower but these workers (Lb) are
> paid lower wages than the other group (La).  Suppose further
> that output/worker/hr is 100% greater in A than in B and that
> wages for Lb are 100% lower than those received by La.
> * Which is the more exploited --   La or Lb?
> In solidarity, Jerry

Philip Dunn

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