Date: Sun Mar 23 2003 - 16:47:23 EST
Quoting Philip Dunn <firstname.lastname@example.org>: > This is why I go for _complete_ equality. The value of the produced > commodity > is identical with the labour embodied in it and equal to its absolute price. What do you mean by an absolute price? Presumably price is measured in units of currency not hours of labour so must be dimensionally disinct at least, an more generally would be some scalar multiple of value. > This abolished price-value deviations even at the disaggregated level. One can so define words as to indicate that by prices one means the same thing as values, but that does not mean that you have abolished the empirical dispersion of market price ratios against value ratios. > Value > is always conserved in circulation. The valorisation process then becomes > non-deterministic. Explain this in more detail please. > There is a deviation between actual value added as > recognised in the product market via absolute prices and potential value > added > as recognised by wages in the labour market. What have wages to do with this, unless you are using them as a proxy for labour time expended?
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