[OPE-L:8179] Re: Re: Marx and labour theory of value

From: clyder@gn.apc.org
Date: Sun Dec 15 2002 - 16:08:07 EST

 Just one more point in respect to 8165

I argued that between trades one can only treat the average
labours of each trade as equivalent when estimating how much
labour socially necessary to produce a product.

I believe that this is a consequence of retaining Marx's
labour /labour power distinction - or what is almost equivalent
the fact that the length of the working day is left as an unbound

Clearly the work of training a programmer is socially necessary
for the programs she writes, so that there would appear to be
a case for imputing the training time to the labour socially
necessary for her product. However one can only validly do this
if one holds the length of the working day to be fixed.
If it is a variable, the number of hours of training imputed
to each our of active labour becomes indeterminate.

All of this relates simply to the procedures necessary in the
drawing up of labour accounts. It does not translate directly
into any hypothesis about prices. Indeed given the causal model
that I advocated earlier, one would expect industries that paid
above average wages to sell their products at above their values.

This is not something that I have explicitly tested, though it is
possible that some indirect evidence could be extrated from existing
published results.

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