[OPE-L:7045] the value[s] of labour power, nationally and internationally

From: gerald_a_levy (gerald_a_levy@msn.com)
Date: Mon Apr 22 2002 - 20:19:22 EDT

Re Diego's [7044]:

> I think Brody says:  There is no problem at all with the different kinds of labor. If it is true that in the aggregate the value of labor power is the value of the means of consumption needed to reproduce labor power, it will also be true at the disaggregate level. <

Why must that "also be true"?  And what level of aggregation 
are we talking about?  

Since the VLP  "contains a historical and moral element" and therefore
differs not only historically but for each society,  the aggregate that you
refer to above can not be the world capitalist economy but only an
individual capitalist social formation.   If that is the case, then how can 
different kinds of labor in different social formations be reduced to simple labor 
since "how much society needs" varies by country?  

In other words, you (re-stating Brody) begin by assuming that, at any moment 
in time,  there is one VLP which can then be disaggregated. What happens, 
though, when there are many V[s]LP [values of labour power]  in the world 
economy?  On a related note,  I find Brody's general claim regarding  models 
-- following Leontief --  about   "how similar static and dynamic, open and closed 
models are"  (Andras Brody _Proportions,  prices and planning_, North-Holland, 
970, p. l59) to be highly problematic.  Even more problematic, though, is assuming 
that the VLP  (and V[s]LP) can be  expressed in a very similar way in static vs. 
dynamic and open vs. closed models  (I  suspect that some concepts of  equilibrium 
and  linearity, a la Leontief and  von Neumann,  have to be smuggled in to bring  
about such results.)  Yet is  it legitimate to conceive of value (and the V[s]LP 
specifically)  in  the contemporary  world capitalist economy  as some sort of linear 
equilibrium process?  

In solidarity, Jerry

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