[OPE-L:6924] Re: value-form and slavery

From: gerald_a_levy (gerald_a_levy@msn.com)
Date: Sat Apr 06 2002 - 13:15:52 EST

Re Rakesh's [6923]:

> Nothing in you say in this post [6920, JL] speaks to the question at hand!
<snip, JL>
> Modern plantation slavery was a form of of absolute surplus value <snip,

Elsewhere you have suggested that increases in the intensity of
labor represent an increase in absolute surplus value, so my post,
[6920], did speak *very* much to the issue at hand since you claim
that  slaves on modern plantations produce(d)  absolute surplus value. I
showed that the entire means through which the intensity of labor
is increased under slavery is very different from the way it is increased
under capitalist relations where there is wage-labor.  The reason for this
difference, as I explained in [6920] , is explained by the difference
in the social relations of slaves under slavery (or "slave-capitalism" or
the modern plantations system) vs. wage-laborers under capitalism. So,
if your claim is that slaves through increasing intensity of labor create
(absolute) surplus value, then I suggest that you re-think your position.

In solidarity, Jerry

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