[OPE-L:6479] Re: Marx and the bible

From: gerald_a_levy (gerald_a_levy@msn.com)
Date: Thu Jan 31 2002 - 03:25:18 EST

Re Paul Z's [6469] and Patrick's [6467] and [6472]:

I'm not convinced one way or the other. But, I don't think the
issue is as clear-cut as Patrick asserted in [6472].

Patrick wrote in [6467]:

> In more politically loaded language, "Accumulate, Accumulate" is the logic
> of the "anti-Christ."

Yes, but which group specifically in Europe at the time that _Capital_
was written were labeled as 'anti-Christ'?  Indeed, hadn't this prejudice
existed in Europe in many cultures and sub-cultures at least since the
Spanish Inquisition?  By the time that _Capital_ was written the
identification of Jewry with money-lending, saving, hoarding, and greed
was a long-standing prejudice  --  indeed the logic of accumulation was
commonly believed to be the logic and practice of Jewry.

Now let's look again at the passage in question.  After the quote in
question, there is "Therefore save, save ...." and then "accumulation for
the sake of accumulation".    So,  first this is "Accumulate, Accumulate",
then "Moses and the Prophets" then "save, save", etc.  This doesn't prove
anything, of  course, except that Marx's choice of when to insert "Moses
and the Prophets"  was _at best_ a dubious decision  from a political
perspective given the rampant anti-Semitism that existed at the time.

It is unquestionably true that Marx assumed a greater familiarity with the
bible(s) by his readers than would be safe to assume today (except in some
cultures).  Nonetheless, he was  not only aware of anti-Semitism in many
European cultures but as his correspondence indicates  he on occasion made
anti-Semitic remarks.

In solidarity, Jerry

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