[OPE-L:6469] Re: RE: Marx and the bible

From: Paul Zarembka (zarembka@ACSU.BUFFALO.EDU)
Date: Wed Jan 30 2002 - 14:50:05 EST

On Wed, 30 Jan 2002, gerald_a_levy wrote [6465]:

> 3) Never one to shy away from controversy, let me
> note that the above reference -- given the prevailing
> anti-Semitism in Europe in Marx's time and given a
> history by Marx  of making anti-Semitic comments in 
> his personal correspondence  (of course this is known 
> to us but was not known to the contemporary readers
> of _Capital_) --  is suggestive of a popular prejudice
> in Europe at the time: the identification of Jews with
> money-making, saving, and lending. 

What does the cited reference to "Moses and the Prophets" by Marx have to
do with "prevailing anti-Semitism in Europe in Marx's time" and Marx's
own prejudices?  Is referring to "Moses and the Prophets" supposed to be


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