[OPE-L:6432] Re: Re: Re: Re: The significance of labor power commodification

From: Rakesh Bhandari (rakeshb@stanford.edu)
Date: Wed Jan 23 2002 - 11:36:05 EST

re Paul C's 6428

>Yes because of the real subsumption of labour to capital. Of course the
>formal subsumption under manufacture leaves open the possiblity of
>independent workers hiring their means of production, and the formal
>subsumption continues to exist in parallel with the real subsumption.
>But modern technology makes the scale of the means of production
>required for most production processes so large that workers can not
>do this. This is one point of the anlysis of machinery and modern industry.

Yes Paul but Marx does not rule out the possibility that workers 
cooperatives own the means of production themselves and then after a 
physical surplus has been produced hand it over to brahminical 
capitalists due to rituals they carried out before production that 
had ensured production would successfully yield a surplus. That is, 
Marx quite clearly fails to rule out the ritual theory of surplus 
value in chapters 5 and 6; moreover, the ritual theory does not 
depend on PVE in part of course because it does not require market 
exchanges on any basis.


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