[OPE-L:5748] Reply to fred - B extra

From: Christopher Arthur (cjarthur@waitrose.com)
Date: Sat Jun 02 2001 - 13:40:21 EDT

A philological point relating to my previous post.
I complain that in the FN against CPE Marx seems to start with a different
point than that in the text without notice. Part of the explanation is that
in the first edition of C the FN occurs in what might be thought its
natural place, at the very end of what would become section 3. Then for the
second edition he seems to have thought: why not collate together the crits
of CPE? and just transferred the FN without thinking over the consequences,
namely as Fred naturally did taking the FN as expansion of the text.
However there is a deeper issue here worthy of notice. As Rubin stresses
marx realised the necessity to distinquish value and exchange value very
late indeed. It was his last conceptual breakthrough (the penultimate one
was the reproduction schemas - hence the unfinished state  they are in). As
late as the first edition of C there is a footnote saying value is just an
abbreviation for exchange value. Of course in essence he had done so but
continued to use the old terminology. Bailey's tellng polemic was that EV
is clearly a relation so why are the Ricardians treating it as a substance?
In response Marx was forced to make the V/EV distinction. This is of course
of enormous importance. Someone like Robinson sees no harm in trying to
correlate labour times and prices but throws up her hands in horror when
the invisible mediator value appears. The reason Marx's lateness is
relevant is that he does not get around to clearly sorting out a
terminology to carefully distinguish the sense in which value is a form of
something else and the sense in which it has forms of its own. In both
German and English these tend to be called 'value form' indifferently, with
horrible consequences for unwary readers. Geert made the point ages ago
that we need a terminology to distinguish these two different value forms
viz that in which value is the form of th product and that in which value
takes forms of its own e.g. money. Moreover , as I streesed, the two cases
are not in the least analogous. For those into Hegel the value v.forms of
value one has to do with essence and appearance in the Logic. The V/UV one
has to do with the relation of the Logic to the non-logical, which is only
metaphorically one of appearance and essence.

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