On Thu, 22 Feb 2001, Fred B. Moseley wrote: > Andrew's short-run equilibrium prices of production change from > period to period, even though there is no change in productivity. > I think this is contrary to Marx's prices of production, which are > the long-run equilibrium prices at the end of the adjustment > process, and change only due to changes in productivity. > > What do you think? I think that if one says "Changes in E are due solely to changes in C", in a context where lagged adjustment may occur, this should be taken to mean All changes in E can be ascribed or traced back to current or prior changes in C which does not imply You'll never see a slice of time in which E changes but C does not [N.B., I'm not actually defending Andrew's concept of prices of production; I'm just suggesting that the sort of quotation you have brought forward doesn't settle the matter.] Allin.
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