[OPE-L:5005] Re: Comments on 3 recent debates

From: Rakesh Narpat Bhandari (rakeshb@Stanford.EDU)
Date: Wed Feb 21 2001 - 00:05:07 EST

>The obvious problem is that if "cost-price plus" is a proper statement
>of Marx's view then "double divergence" is nonsense: there is one and
>only one source of divergence between price of production and value,
>namely the discrepancy between surplus value and (equalized) profit.

I think that it should be noted that while this is obvious, I was the 
first to point it out. In fact, I can't find in the exegeses of Marx 
I have  a single reference to Marx's idea (articulated both in TSVIII 
and Capital III) that there are two reasons why value and price of 
production diverge. I look forward to working through Alejandro's 
post on this matter (and immediately note that the reference in 
TSVIII to double divergence is not part of a section on  commodities 
of average composition at all ). And I look forward to working 
through Andrew K's criticism of Fred's macro method as regards 
changes in the technical conditions in a dept III (though of course 
there is no dept III in Andrew's example).  And I owe Paul Z a reply 
on the schemes as well. As Jerry has reminded me, there is no reason 
to rush off a reply--especially since you are all probably getting 
drunk at a conference somewhere below sea level.
Yours, Rakesh

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